Evaluating definite integrals using Fundamental Theorem of Calculus
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Here is a statement of the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC2), from a well-known calculus text (James Stewart, Calculus, 4th ed):
If $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, then $int_a^b f(x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$, where $F$ is any [emphasis mine] antiderivative of $f$, that is, a function such that $F'=f$.
The following, however, seems to give a counterexample.*
Can someone resolve this for me?:
Let $f(x) = frac{1}{4 sin (x)+5}$.
$f$ is continuous on $[0, 2 pi]$:
Consider two antiderivatives of $f$, $F_1$ and $F_2$:
$$F_1(x) = frac{x}{3}+frac{2}{3} tan^{-1}left(frac{cos (x)}{sin (x)+2}right)$$
$$F_2(x)=frac{1}{3} left(tan ^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{tan left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)-tan^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{cot left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)right).$$
Using Mathematica, I've confirmed that both $F_1'= f$ and $F_2'= f$. According to my reading of the above statement of FTC(2), $int_0^{2pi} f (x) , dx = F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)= F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)$
However,
$F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)=2pi/3$
$F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)=0$
Note from the plots below that $F_1$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, while $F_2$ is not. Given all of this, it seems the sufficient condition for $int_a^b f (x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$ is that the antiderivative be continuous on $[a,b]$, not the integrand.
$F_1 =$
$F_2=$
*I've taken this example function from [a wolfram.com blog.] (https://blog.wolfram.com/2008/01/19/mathematica-and-the-fundamental-theorem-of-calculus/)
calculus definite-integrals
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Here is a statement of the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC2), from a well-known calculus text (James Stewart, Calculus, 4th ed):
If $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, then $int_a^b f(x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$, where $F$ is any [emphasis mine] antiderivative of $f$, that is, a function such that $F'=f$.
The following, however, seems to give a counterexample.*
Can someone resolve this for me?:
Let $f(x) = frac{1}{4 sin (x)+5}$.
$f$ is continuous on $[0, 2 pi]$:
Consider two antiderivatives of $f$, $F_1$ and $F_2$:
$$F_1(x) = frac{x}{3}+frac{2}{3} tan^{-1}left(frac{cos (x)}{sin (x)+2}right)$$
$$F_2(x)=frac{1}{3} left(tan ^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{tan left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)-tan^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{cot left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)right).$$
Using Mathematica, I've confirmed that both $F_1'= f$ and $F_2'= f$. According to my reading of the above statement of FTC(2), $int_0^{2pi} f (x) , dx = F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)= F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)$
However,
$F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)=2pi/3$
$F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)=0$
Note from the plots below that $F_1$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, while $F_2$ is not. Given all of this, it seems the sufficient condition for $int_a^b f (x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$ is that the antiderivative be continuous on $[a,b]$, not the integrand.
$F_1 =$
$F_2=$
*I've taken this example function from [a wolfram.com blog.] (https://blog.wolfram.com/2008/01/19/mathematica-and-the-fundamental-theorem-of-calculus/)
calculus definite-integrals
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a statement of the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC2), from a well-known calculus text (James Stewart, Calculus, 4th ed):
If $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, then $int_a^b f(x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$, where $F$ is any [emphasis mine] antiderivative of $f$, that is, a function such that $F'=f$.
The following, however, seems to give a counterexample.*
Can someone resolve this for me?:
Let $f(x) = frac{1}{4 sin (x)+5}$.
$f$ is continuous on $[0, 2 pi]$:
Consider two antiderivatives of $f$, $F_1$ and $F_2$:
$$F_1(x) = frac{x}{3}+frac{2}{3} tan^{-1}left(frac{cos (x)}{sin (x)+2}right)$$
$$F_2(x)=frac{1}{3} left(tan ^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{tan left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)-tan^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{cot left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)right).$$
Using Mathematica, I've confirmed that both $F_1'= f$ and $F_2'= f$. According to my reading of the above statement of FTC(2), $int_0^{2pi} f (x) , dx = F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)= F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)$
However,
$F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)=2pi/3$
$F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)=0$
Note from the plots below that $F_1$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, while $F_2$ is not. Given all of this, it seems the sufficient condition for $int_a^b f (x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$ is that the antiderivative be continuous on $[a,b]$, not the integrand.
$F_1 =$
$F_2=$
*I've taken this example function from [a wolfram.com blog.] (https://blog.wolfram.com/2008/01/19/mathematica-and-the-fundamental-theorem-of-calculus/)
calculus definite-integrals
New contributor
$endgroup$
Here is a statement of the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC2), from a well-known calculus text (James Stewart, Calculus, 4th ed):
If $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, then $int_a^b f(x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$, where $F$ is any [emphasis mine] antiderivative of $f$, that is, a function such that $F'=f$.
The following, however, seems to give a counterexample.*
Can someone resolve this for me?:
Let $f(x) = frac{1}{4 sin (x)+5}$.
$f$ is continuous on $[0, 2 pi]$:
Consider two antiderivatives of $f$, $F_1$ and $F_2$:
$$F_1(x) = frac{x}{3}+frac{2}{3} tan^{-1}left(frac{cos (x)}{sin (x)+2}right)$$
$$F_2(x)=frac{1}{3} left(tan ^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{tan left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)-tan^{-1}left(2-frac{3}{cot left(frac{x}{2}right)+2}right)right).$$
Using Mathematica, I've confirmed that both $F_1'= f$ and $F_2'= f$. According to my reading of the above statement of FTC(2), $int_0^{2pi} f (x) , dx = F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)= F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)$
However,
$F_1(2pi)-F_1(0)=2pi/3$
$F_2(2pi)-F_2(0)=0$
Note from the plots below that $F_1$ is continuous on $[a,b]$, while $F_2$ is not. Given all of this, it seems the sufficient condition for $int_a^b f (x) , dx = F(a)-F(b)$ is that the antiderivative be continuous on $[a,b]$, not the integrand.
$F_1 =$
$F_2=$
*I've taken this example function from [a wolfram.com blog.] (https://blog.wolfram.com/2008/01/19/mathematica-and-the-fundamental-theorem-of-calculus/)
calculus definite-integrals
calculus definite-integrals
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edited 5 hours ago
theorist
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theoristtheorist
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A differentiable function is continuous. If your "antiderivative" is not continuous, it is not an antiderivative of a continuous function.
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add a comment |
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You have to subtract the same antiderivative evaluated at starting and end point from each other. The F in the theorem you quote can not be two different antiderivatives. It can be any of them, but only one of them.
New contributor
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That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting eitherF2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
orF1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.
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– theorist
1 hour ago
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$begingroup$
A differentiable function is continuous. If your "antiderivative" is not continuous, it is not an antiderivative of a continuous function.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
A differentiable function is continuous. If your "antiderivative" is not continuous, it is not an antiderivative of a continuous function.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A differentiable function is continuous. If your "antiderivative" is not continuous, it is not an antiderivative of a continuous function.
$endgroup$
A differentiable function is continuous. If your "antiderivative" is not continuous, it is not an antiderivative of a continuous function.
answered 5 hours ago
Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami
125k1177178
125k1177178
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$begingroup$
You have to subtract the same antiderivative evaluated at starting and end point from each other. The F in the theorem you quote can not be two different antiderivatives. It can be any of them, but only one of them.
New contributor
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting eitherF2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
orF1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.
$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have to subtract the same antiderivative evaluated at starting and end point from each other. The F in the theorem you quote can not be two different antiderivatives. It can be any of them, but only one of them.
New contributor
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting eitherF2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
orF1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.
$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You have to subtract the same antiderivative evaluated at starting and end point from each other. The F in the theorem you quote can not be two different antiderivatives. It can be any of them, but only one of them.
New contributor
$endgroup$
You have to subtract the same antiderivative evaluated at starting and end point from each other. The F in the theorem you quote can not be two different antiderivatives. It can be any of them, but only one of them.
New contributor
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answered 2 hours ago
Georg RempferGeorg Rempfer
1
1
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$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting eitherF2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
orF1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.
$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting eitherF2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
orF1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.
$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
1
1
$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting either
F2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
or F1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That's not what's going on here. If you take another look at my question, you'll see I'm not subtracting either
F2(2 Pi) - F1(0)
or F1(2 Pi) - F2(0)
. I believe Martin's answer is the correct one: The problem is that F2 is not an antiderivative of f.$endgroup$
– theorist
1 hour ago
add a comment |
theorist is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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